Government & Administration (India & World) (Part-III)

Total Questions: 51

31. We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our model differ from that model? [2021-1]

1. As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of the parliament to legislate is limited.

2. In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act of the Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Correct Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Solution:Parliamentary sovereignty is a principle of the UK constitution. It makes Parliament the supreme legal authority in the UK, which can create or end any law. Parliament of India is a creation of the Constitution. UK's parliament is more powerful than the Indian Parliament. Statement 1 is correct. 2017: For the first time in its nearly 70-year-long history, SC set up a permanent constitutional bench to hear cases related to constitutionality of laws. So, #2 should be correct. Therefore, correct option "(c)".

32. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements: [2021-1]

1. N. Gopalaswamy lyenger Committee suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it.

2. In 1970, the Department of personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime Minister's charge.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer: (b) 2 only
Solution:Ayyangar was part of the 7-member drafting committee of the Indian constitution appointed on August 29, 1947. Sh. N. Gopalaswamy Ayyangar, in his Report namely 'Reorganization of the Machinery of Central Government' in 1950 recommended the grouping of ministries, improvement in the capabilities of the personnel, and also in the working of the O&M Division.
1st ARC suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it. So Statement 1 is incorrect.
On the basis of the recommendations of the Administrative Reforms Commission in 1970, the Department of Personnel was set up in the Cabinet Secretariat. It was placed under the Prime Minister's Office, So, Statement 2 is correct.

33. Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha? [2022-1]

1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency

2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers

3. To impeach the President of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: (b) 2 only
Solution:Statement 1 is wrong: Article 352: Every Emergency Proclamation issued needs to be laid before each House of Parliament Statement 2 is correct: Article 75(3): The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. So no-confidence motion requires approval of Lok Sabha only. Statement 3 is wrong: Article 61: If a President is to be impeached, the charge shall be framed by either House of Parliament.

34. With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements: [2022-1]

1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.

2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer: (b) 2 only
Solution:Statement 1 is wrong Schedule 10: If a nominated member joins any political party after the expiry of six months from joining then he'll be disqualified. Statement 2 is correct. No timeline is prescribed.

35. Consider the following statements: [2022-1]

1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.

2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution:Statement 1 is wrong Article 88: Attorney General of India shall have the right to speak and participate in either House but without right to vote. No mention of Solicitor General of India.

Statement 2 is wrong Article 76: The Attorney General shall hold office during the pleasure of the President. So Attorney General need not resign if the government resigns.

36. With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: [2022-1]

1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.

2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.

3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.

4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only
Solution:Statement 4 is wrong- There is no parliamentary practice requiring the PM to second the motion. (c) and (d) eliminated. Statement 2 is wrong- there is no such rule requiring the deputy speaker to be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party. (b) option eliminated. Therefore by elimination the answer is (a).

37. If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it ? [2022-1]

Correct Answer: (a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.
Solution:Option (a) is correct: This would prevent the shifting of the land of tribal people to non-tribal people.

38. With reference to 'Scheduled Areas in India, consider the following statements: [2023-1]

1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.

2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.

3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: (b) Only two
Solution:Statement 1 is correct: article 244(1)- President may by order declare to be Scheduled areas after consultation with the Governor of the state.
Statement 2 is incorrect: the lowest administrative unit is the gram Sabha and not the cluster of villages at the block level.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The notification of an area as scheduled areas takes place through the presidential order. The largest administrative unit forming the scheduled areas has been the district and the lowest the cluster of villages in the block. The Governors of the States in which there are 'Scheduled Areas" have to submit reports to the President regarding the administration of such Areas, annually or whenever so required by the President [Sch. V, Para 3]. Hence, Only two options are correct.

39. Consider the following statements: [2023-1]

Statement-1: In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.

Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
Solution:Statement-I is correct because the management of prisons in India is a state subject under Entry 4 of List II of the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India. This means that the power to legislate on prisons lies with the state governments. The Prisons Act, 1894 is a central legislation, but it only lays down the broad framework for prison administration. The day-to-day administration of prisons is left to the state governments, who have their own rules and regulations.

Statement-II is correct: The management and administration of Prisons falls exclusively in the domain of the State Governments and is governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 and the Prison Manuals of the respective State Governments. Hence it is true that the Prisons Act 1894 kept the subject of prisons in the Provincial government (State governments) and this explains why State governments have the power to frame their own rules and regulations regarding prison management.

40. With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: [2023-1]

1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government.

2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security.

3. To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: (b) Only two
Solution:St 1 is wrong. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the States/Union Territories. (and NOT Union Government)

St 2 is right. The role of Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the Police in maintenance of internal security situations, help the community in any kind of emergency such as an air-raid, fire, cyclone, earthquake, epidemic etc.,

St 3 is correct. Fifteen Border Wing Home Guards (BWHG) Battalions have been raised in the border States viz. Punjab (6 Bns.), Rajasthan (4 Bns.), Gujarat (2 Bns.) and one each Battalion for Meghalaya, Tripura and West Bengal.