NTA UGC NET-JRF EXAM, December 2023 Paper II (HOME SCIENCE)

Total Questions: 100

41. Which of the following are important functions of food packaging?

(A) To preserve the quality and freshness of food products.
(B) To enhance the taste of food products.
(C) To provide information about the food products to the consumers.
(D) To promote the food product.
(E) To enhance the nutritional quality of food product.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

Correct Answer: (d) (A), (C) and (D) Only
Solution:

The correct answer from the options given below is:
The important function of good packaging.
To preserve the quality and freshness of food products: Food packaging helps to protect food from physical, chemical, and biological influences that can lead to spoilage or degradation. It can prevent exposure to air, moisture, light, and microorganisms, thus extending the shelf life of the product and maintaining its quality and freshness.
To provide information about the food products to the consumers: Packaging serves as a means to convey essential information to consumers, including nutritional facts, ingredients, allergen warnings, storage instructions, expiration dates, and manufacturer details.
This information helps consumers make informed decisions about the products they purchase and consume. To promote the food product: Packaging plays a crucial role in marketing and promoting food products. It serves as a visual cue to attract consumers’ attention and differentiate the product from competitors. Packaging design, colors, logos, and branding elements help to create brand recognition and influence consumer purchasing decisions.

42. Find the correct order for plan of work?

(A) Determining need and defining the problem.
(B) Collecting and Analysing the data.
(C) Selection of problem and determining the priorities.
(D) Planning and carrying out plan of work.
(E) Checking evaluation and reviews the programme and reconsider the new plans.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :  

Correct Answer: (c) (B), (A), (C), (D), (E)
Solution:

Correct order of than of work-
♦ Collecting and Analysing the data.
♦ Determining need and defining the problem.
♦ Selection of problem and determining the priorities.
♦ Planning and carrying out plan of work.
♦ Checking evaluation and reviews the programme and reconsider the new plans.

43. Match List-I with List-II

Correct Answer: (a)
Solution:

Correct match is
1. Godet: In the context of clothing and fashion, a godet refers to a triangular piece of fabric that is inserted into a garment, typically in a skirt or dress, to add fullness or flare. Godets are often used to create a flared or flowing silhouette, especially in skirts or dresses that narrow toward the hemline.
2. Gusset: A gusset is a small piece of fabric, often triangular or rectangular in shape, that is inserted into a seam or corner of a garment to add strength, shape, or flexibility. Gussets are commonly used in areas of stress or movement, such as the underarms of shirts or the crotch area of pants, to enhance durability and
comfort.
3. Peplum: A peplum is a short, flared, or ruffled piece of fabric that is attached at the waistline of a garment, such as a top, dress, or jacket. The peplum extends outward from the waist, often creating a flattering silhouette by accentuating the waistline and adding volume to the hips or lower torso. Peplums can vary in length and fullness, ranging from subtle flares to dramatic ruffles.
4. Gores: Gores are triangular or tapered pieces of fabric that are used to add width or fullness to a garment, particularly in skirts or dresses. Gores are inserted into seams and distributed around the circumference of the garment, allowing for ease of movement and creating a flared or flowing silhouette. They are often used in conjunction with
other shaping techniques to achieve desired styles and fits.

44. Arrange the stages of work curve in sequence :

(A) Plateau of greatest production
(B) Warming up     (C) Rest period
(D) peak load          (E) Decline in output
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

Correct Answer: (a) (B), (A), (E), (C), (D)
Solution:

The stages of work curve in sequence are:-
B. Warming up
A. Plateau of greatest production
E. Decline in output
C. Rest period
D. Peak load
This order suggests the typical progression of work performance, starting with warming up, reaching the plateau of greatest production, followed by a decline in output, a rest period, and finally reaching the peak load.

45. Learning is more likely to occur if the learning experiences are :

(A) Repeated with meaning   (B) Unrelated
(C) Intense and vivid               (D) Annoying
(E) Generalised
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

Correct Answer: (c) (A) and (C) Only
Solution:

Learning is more likely to occur if the learning experiences are repeated with meaning and intense and vivid.
• Repeated with meaning: When learning experiences are repeated, it allows for reinforcement and consolidation of knowledge. However, repetition alone may not suffice. Meaningful repetition, where learners understand the concepts and the context behind the repetition, helps in encoding information into long-term memory and facilitates better retention and application of knowledge.
• Intense and vivid: Intense and vivid learning experiences capture learners’ attention and engagement. These experiences tend to be more memorable and impactful because they stimulate multiple senses and emotions, making the learning process more immersive. Intense and vivid experiences create stronger neural connections, facilitating better comprehension and retention of information.
Therefore, combining meaningful repetition with intense and vivid learning experiences maximizes the likelihood of effective learning and knowledge retention.

46. Which of the following programmes of extension were launched in India before Independence of the country?

(A) Gurgaon Experiment
(B) Community Development Programme
(C) Indian village services
(D) Integrated Rural Development Programme
(E) Shanti Niketan Project
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Correct Answer: (d) (A), (C) and (E) Only
Solution:

The extension programs launched in India before independence along with their implementation years are:
- Gurgaon Experiment: Implemented in the 1920s.
- Indian Village Services: Launched in 1940.
- Shanti Niketan Project: Started in the early 1940s. The extension programs launched in India after independence are:
- Community Development Programme: Initiated in 1952.
- Integrated Rural Development Programme Implemented in 1978.

47. Arrange the following in the order of life span development :

(A) Adolescence     (B) Senescence
(C) Infancy              (D) Prenatal period
(E) Childhood
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Correct Answer: (d) (D), (C), (E), (A), (B)
Solution:

The order of life span development from earliest to latest typically follows:
1. Prenatal period : This is the time from conception to birth.
2. Infancy: This stage begins at birth and extends through the first two years of life.
3. Childhood: It follows infancy and extends to the onset of puberty.
4. Adolescence: This stage typically begins with the onset of puberty and extends into the late teens or early twenties.
5. Senescence: This refers to the aging process, including physical, cognitive, and social changes that occur as people grow older. It starts in late adulthood and continues until death.

48. Arrange the steps of entrepreneurial process in sequence :

(A) Company formation/execution
(B) Growth
(C) Brainstorming and exploration
(D) Idea generation
(E) Opportunity evaluation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

Correct Answer: (c) (C), (D), (E), (A), (B)
Solution:

The correct sequence for the entrepreneurial process is :
1. (C) Brainstorming and exploration
2. (D) Idea generation
3. (E) Opportunity evaluation
4. (A) Company formation/ execution
5. (B) Growth

49. Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : Adopting ecofriendly methods and bio degradable substances for dying and printing processes in textile and garment making can save the resources of the nature and reduce chemical land fill in a big way.
Reason (R) : Bio-degradable dyes do not require heavy metals, amines and inorganic salts. Hence they do not easily get decomposed without leaving any landfill in the environment.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

Correct Answer: (c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
Solution:

Adopting eco-friendly methods and using biodegradable substances can indeed help in conserving natural resources and reducing chemical landfill by minimizing the environmental impact of textile and garment production processes. Biodegradable dyes typically avoid the use of heavy metals, amines, and inorganic salts, making them less harmful to the environment and more easily decomposable.

50. Which one of the following is NOT a principle of Flat Pattern Making?

Correct Answer: (b) Principle of Drafting
Solution:

In flat pattern making, drafting is the process of creating a pattern from scratch using measurements and calculations. It’s about transferring measurements onto paper without relying on pre-existing patterns. The other principles—Dart Manipulation, Added Fullness, and Body Contouring—involve shaping, adjusting, and adding fabric to create garments that fit and flatter the body. Drafting sets the initial pattern, while the other principles refine and customize it. Therefore, drafting isn’t considered as one of the principles of flat pattern making.