NTA UGC NET/JRF Exam, January 2025 (Commerce)

Total Questions: 100

41. Which of the following is not a monetary measure for correcting disequilibrium in Balance of Payment?

Correct Answer: D. Abolution of Export Duties
Solution:Monetary measures for correcting balance of payment (BOP) disequilibrium include policies that influence money supply and exchange rates, such as Monetary Contraction, Devaluation, and Exchange Control. Abolition of Export Duties is a fiscal measure, not a monetary measure. It affects government revenue and trade policy but does not directly control money supply or exchange rates.

42. Arrange the following steps in the proper sequence to develop effective marketing communication.

(a) Design the communication
(b) Select the communication channel
(c) Identify the target audience
(d) Choose the communication mix
(e) Choose the communication objectives
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Correct Answer: D. (c), (e), (a), (b), (d)
Solution:(c) Identify the target audience → The first step is to determine whom the marketing communication is directed at.
(e) Choose the communication objectives → Define what the company wants to achieve (e.g., brand awareness, lead generation).
(a) Design the communication→ Develop the message, format, and appeal to attract the target audience.
(b) Select the communication channel → Choose whether to use TV, social media, print, or digital platforms for delivery.
(d) Choose the communication mix→ Decide the proportion of advertising, sales promotions, personal selling, and public relations.

43. Identify, which of the following statements are True.

(a) Commuted pension received by a government employee is fully exempted from Income Tax
(b) Section 30 of the Income Tax Act 1961 discusses deduction in respect of rent, rates, taxes, repairs and insurance of building used by the assessee for the purpose of business
(c) Section 33 of the Income Tax Act 1961, defines provision regarding depreciation of tangible assets
(d) Capital gain arises from transfer of any assets
(e) Short term Capital assets is defined under section 2(42A) of the Income Tax Act 1961
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Correct Answer: A. (a), (b) and (e) only
Solution:(a) Commuted pension received by a government employee is fully exempted from Income Tax → As per Section 10(10A) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, a government employee's commuted pension is fully exempted.
(b) Section 30 of the Income Tax Act 1961 discusses deduction in respect of rent, rates, taxes, repairs, and insurance of building used for business→ This section allows deductions related to business premises.
(e) Short-term capital asset is defined under Section 2(42A) of the Income Tax Act, 1961 →This section defines short-term capital assets based on their holding period (less than 36 months for immovable property and 12 months for listed securities).
(c) Incorrect Section 33 does not deal with depreciation; depreciation is covered under Section 32.
(d) Incorrect → Capital gain does not arise from every asset transfer; certain transfers (like gifts or inheritance) are exempt.

44. Which of the following are the disadvantages of Graphics rating scale as an appraisal tool?

(a) Standards may be unclear
(b) Halo Effect
(c) Time consuming
(d) Difficult to develop
(e) Leniency
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Correct Answer: A. (a), (b), (e) only
Solution:(a) Standards may be unclear → Rating scales may be subjective and lack clear differentiation between performance levels.
(b) Halo Effect A single characteristic (e.g., punctuality) may influence overall ratings, leading to biased appraisals.
(e) Leniency → Some raters may consistently give higher ratings, making the evaluation unreliable.
(c) and (d) Incorrect → Graphics rating scales are not time-consuming or difficult to develop compared to other methods like Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scales (BARS).

45. Arrange the following channels in the increasing order of value-addition of sales.

(a) Retail Store
(b) Sales force
(c) Internet
(d) Value-added partners
(e) Distributors
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Correct Answer: C. (c), (a), (e), (d), (b)
Solution:(c) Internet → Provides the least value addition as customers browse and purchase products online without personal interaction.
(a) Retail Store → Adds more value by allowing customers to physically examine products before purchasing.
(e) Distributors → Act as intermediaries in the supply chain, adding logistical efficiency to sales.
(d) Value-added partners → Offer additional services like customization, training, or after-sales support.
(b) Sales Force → Provides maximum value addition through personalized service, customized solutions, and relationship-building with clients.

46. Which of the following are true for Skewness:

(a) It is a measure of symmetry of a frequency distribution.
(b) For the right-skewed distribution, the mean is to be to the right of median
(c) For the right-skewed distribution, the mean is to be to the right of mode.
(d) For the right-skewed distribution, the mean is to be to the left of median.
(e) For the right-skewed distribution, the mean is to be to the left of mode.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Correct Answer: A. (a), (b), (c) only
Solution:(a) It is a measure of symmetry of a frequency distribution → Skewness describes the asymmetry of a data distribution. A perfectly symmetrical distribution has zero skewness.
(b) For the right-skewed distribution, the mean is to the right of the median→ In a positively skewed (right-skewed) distribution, the mean is greater than the median because larger values pull it to the right.
(c) For the right-skewed distribution, the mean is to the right of mode → In a right-skewed distribution, the relationship is: Mode < Median < Mean
(d) and (e) are incorrect because in rightskewed distributions, the mean is to the right (not left) of the median and mode.

47. Arrange the following Institutions in ascending order of their year of establishment.

(a) SEBI
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) State Bank of India
(d) SIDBІ
(e) NABARD
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Correct Answer: B. (b), (c), (e), (d), (a)
Solution:(b) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) - 1935 → India's central bank, established to regulate monetary policy and financial stability.
(c) State Bank of India (SBI) - 1955→ India's largest public-sector bank, nationalized in 1955.
(e) NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development) 1982 → Supports rural development and agricultural finance.
(d) SIDBI (Small Industries Development Bank of India) - 1990 → Focuses on financing micro, small, and medium enterprises (MSMEs).
(a) SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) - 1992 → Regulates and oversees the stock market and securities transactions in India.

48. "To what degree will there be rules and regulations to direct employees and managers" is defined as:

Correct Answer: C. Formalization
Solution:Formalization refers to the degree to which rules, procedures, and regulations are established to guide employees and managers in an organization. Highly formalized organizations have strict rules and policies, while low formalization allows flexibility.
Other options are incorrect:
• Departmentalization → Dividing an organization into different units based on functions or geography.
• Centralization and Decentralization→ Determines decision-making authority distribution.
• Boundary Spanning → Involves interactions across organizational boundaries to share knowledge.

49. Prepaid Insurance is which type of account?

Correct Answer: B. Personal Account
Solution:Prepaid Insurance represents an advance payment for insurance coverage and is classified as a Personal Account in accounting. Rule of Personal Accounts: Debit the receiver, Credit the giver Debit the receiver, Credit the giver
Since an insurance company is the receiver of payment in advance, Prepaid Insurance is an Asset (not a nominal or real account).

50. A contract of Indemnity is a:

Correct Answer: D. Contingent Contract
Solution:A contract of indemnity is a contingent contract as per Section 31 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872.
A contingent contract depends on the occurrence or non-occurrence of an uncertain event.
Indemnity contracts ensure compensation to a party in case of a specified loss, making them contingent in nature.
Other options are incorrect:
• Wagering Agreement → Based on chance, not indemnity.
• Quasi Contract → Implied by law, not an agreement.
• Void Contract → Indemnity contracts are legally valid unless otherwise specified.