Polity (Part-2) (CDS-Solved Paper)

Total Questions: 50

11. According to the Election Commission of India, in order to be recognised as a ‘National Party’, a political party must be treated as a recognised political party in how many states? [Morning Shift-2018 (I)]

Correct Answer: (c) At least four states
Solution:

For recognition as National Party, a political party has to fulfill the following conditions:
(i) The party wins 2% of seats in the Lok Sabha (11 seats) from at least three different states.
(ii) At a General Election to Lok Sabha or Legislative Assembly, the party polls 6% of votes in four states and in addition it wins 4 Lok Sabha seats.
(iii) A party gets recognition as state party in four or more states. Both national and state parties have to fulfill these conditions for all subsequent Lok Sabha or State elections. Otherwise, they lose their status. Hence, options (c) is correct.

12. Which one of the following is not a correct ascending order of commissioned ranks in the defence forces of India? [Morning Shift-2018 (I)]

Correct Answer: (c) Flying Officer, Flight Lieutenant, Squadron Leader, Group Captain, Wing Commander, Air Commodore, Air Vice Marshal, Air Marshal, Air Chief Marshal
Solution:

This table gives the descending order of ranks in defence forces in India.

As per the given table option (c) is not a correct ascending order of commissioned ranks in defence forces of India.

13. Which of the following statements about Attorney General of India is/are not correct? [Morning Shift-2018 (I)]

1. He is the first Law Officer of the Government of India.
2. He is entitled to the privileges of a Member of the Parliament.
3. He is a whole-time counsel for the government.
4. He must have the same qualifications as are required to be a judge of the Supreme Court.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below

Correct Answer: (c) Only 3
Solution:

Attorney General of India is not a whole time counsel for the government. Attorney General is Indian government’s chief legal advisor and its primary lawyer in the Supreme Court of India.

As per Article 76(1), President of India appoints Attorney General for a term which is decided by President. The Attorney General holds the office during the pleasure of the President.

The Attorney General represents the government but is also allowed to take up private practice, provided the other party is not the state. Attorney General has right of audience in all courts within the territory of India.

He has also the right to speak and take part in proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament including joint sittings.  Attorney General has all the powers and privileges that of a member of Parliament. Hence, all the statements are correct except 3.

14. Under which one of the following Amendment Acts was Sikkim admitted into the Union of India? [Morning Shift-2018 (I)]

Correct Answer: (b) 36th
Solution:

Under the 36th Amemdment Act the state Sikkim admitted to the Union of India. Sikkim became a state of India via the Amendment Act, 1975 on 26th April, 1975.

The Sikkim State day is observed on 16th May of every year because this was the day when the first Chief Minister of Sikkim assumed office. In 1974, the Sikkim Assembly passed a Government of Sikkim Act, 1974, which paved the way for setting up the first ever responsible government in Sikkim and sought Sikkim’s representation in the political institutions of India.

India also passed the 35th Amendment Act, 1974 which inserted a new Article 2A (Sikkim to be associated with Union).

15. Which one of the following statements in respect of the States of India is not correct? [Morning Shift-2018 (I)]

Correct Answer: (d) The maximum number of members in the Council of Ministers of Delhi can be 15% of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly
Solution:

The maximum number of members in the Council of Ministers of Delhi can be 10% of the total number of members in the Assembly. Therefore, option(d) is incorrect. India is governed by a single Constitution for the whole country.

The states in India are carved for the administrative significance so, they do not have any right to secession from the Union.

16. Which one of the following Amendments to the Constitution of India has prescribed that the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15% of total number of members of the House of the People or Legislative Assembly in the States? [Morning Shift-2018 (I)]

Correct Answer: (a) 91st Amendment
Solution:

Earlier, a ‘defection’ by  one-third  of the elected members of a political party was considered a merger. The  91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003, changed this.

So now atleast two-thirds  of the members of a party have to be in favour of a ‘merger’ for it to have validity in the eyes of the law. This amendment also fixed the strength of council of ministers to 15% of the total number of members of the house.

17. In which two Indian States of the four mentioned below, it is necessary to hold certain minimum educational qualifications to be eligible to contest Panchayat Elections? [Evening Shift-2017 (II)]

In which two Indian States of the four mentioned below, it is necessary to hold certain minimum educational qualifications to be eligible to contest Panchayat Elections?
1. Punjab 2. Haryana 3. Karnakata 4. Rajasthan
Select the correct answer using the codes given below

Correct Answer: (b) 2 and 4
Solution:

Haryana and Rajashtan are the states who mandate to ‘fix minimum education qualification for those contesting in Panchayat Raj Institutions.

The Haryana law mandates that the minimum education qualification that to context in the Panchayat polls is class 10th pass for men, class 8th for women and class 5th pass for dalits.

In Rajasthan, candidates contesting Zila Parishad and Panchayat Samiti polls have to be Xth pass and for Sarpanch elections class 8th pass.

18. Which of the following statements about ‘delegation’ is/are correct? [Evening Shift-2017 (II)]

1. It is the abdication of responsibility.
2. It means conferring of specified authority by a lower authority to a higher one.
3. It is subject to supervision and review.
4. It is a method of dividing authority in the organisation.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below

Correct Answer: (c) 3 and 4
Solution:

The delegation of authority is an organisational process wherein, the manager divides his work among the subordinates and gives them the responsibility to accomplish the respective tasks.

Along with the responsibility, he also shares the authority i.e., the power to take decisions with the subordinates, such that responsibilities can be completed efficiently. Hence option (c) is correct.

19. Which of the following features were borrowed by the Constitution of India from the British Constitution? [Evening Shift-2017 (II)]

1. Rule of Law
2. Law making Procedure
3. Independence of Judiciary
4. Parliamentary
Select the correct answer using the codes given below

Correct Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 4
Solution:

The Indian Constitution is unique in its contents and spirit. Though borrowed from almost every Constitution of the world, the Constitution of India has several features that distinguish it from the Constitutions of other countries. Following features have been borrowed by the British Constitution
1. Parliamentary government
2. Rule of Law
3. Legislative procedure
4. Single Citizenship
5. Cabinet system
6. Prerogative writs
7. Parliamentary privileges
8. Bicameralism Independence of Judiciary has been taken from the Constitution of USA.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

20. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India has fixed the number of Members of the Rajya Sabha to be elected from each state? [Evening Shift-2017 (II)]

Correct Answer: (d) Fourth Schedule
Solution:

The Fourth schedule of the Indian Constitution contains provisions as to the allocation of seats in the council of states.
Indian Constitution originally had eight schedules. Four more schedules were added by different amendments, now making a total 12 schedules.
These are basically tables which contains additional details not mentioned in the articles.
Third Schedule Forms of Oaths or Affirmations.
Fifth Schedule Provisions as to the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.
Sixth Schedule Provisions as to the administration of tribal areas in (the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.)