UGC NET/JRF EXAM, JUNE-2025 Labour and Social Welfare

Total Questions: 100

71. Given below are the provisions from labour legislations. Find out which are true:

A. Every employee who has worked for a minimum of 50 working days in a year shall be entitled for bonus as per the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965.
B. As per the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 payment of the wages shall be made in cash.
C. The provisions of the Equal Remuneration Act, 1976 have been extended only to unskilled and semiskilled trades
D. The employer contribution towards EPF is tax-free as per the Employees' Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Correct Answer: 2. B and D only
Solution:Payment of wages in cash under Minimum Wages Act and tax-free employer EPF contribution are the correct legal provisions.

B. As per the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 payment of the wages shall be made in cash: Section 11 specifies that wages must be paid in cash, unless the appropriate government authorises payment in kind. This makes cash the mandatory and default mode of wage disbursement. Although later wage codes modernise the modes of payment, the statutory position under this Act remains that cash is the standard requirement.

D. The employer contribution towards EPF is tax-free: Under the EPF & MP Act, 1952, read with the Income Tax Act, the employer's contribution to aa recognised provident fund is exempt from tax in the hands of the employee up to the statutory limit (generally 12% of basic wages). The EPF contribution is therefore treated as a tax-free benefit, with taxation applicable only if employer contributions exceed prescribed thresholds.

(A) is incorrect because entitlement to bonus requires not less than 30 working days in a year under Section 8 of the Payment of Bonus Act, not 50.

(C) is incorrect because the Equal Remuneration Act applies to all categories of employment, not only unskilled or semiskilled trades, and mandates equal pay for equal work regardless of skill classification.

72. Which of the following statements on employment and unemployment scenario in India are true?

A. The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation conducts Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS)
B. As per the PLFS (2022-23) report, the Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) in the rural area has increased
C. For the PLFS data is collected from persons age 18 years and above
D. Majority of the Indian workforce is concentrated in the unorganized sector

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Correct Answer: 1. А, В and D only
Solution:PLFS is conducted by MoSPI, LFPR has increased, and workforce is mostly unorganized.

A. MoSPI conducts PLFS: The Periodic Labour Force Survey is carried out by the National Statistical Office (NSO) under MoSPI.

B. LFPR increased in rural areas (PLFS 2022-23): The report shows a notable rise in LFPR, especially among rural women and overall rural population.

D. Majority workforce in unorganized sector: More than 80-85% of India's workforce remains in the unorganized/informal sector, confirming this statement as true.

(C) is incorrect because PLFS collects data from individuals 15 years and above, not only 18+.

73. Which of the following legal provisions on occupational health and safety are true?

A. As per the Mines Act, 1952 the chief inspector may undertake safety and occupational health survey in a mine
B. As per the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 a woman suffering illness cut of pregnancy is not entitled to any additional leave
C. As per the Factories Act, 1948 a young person engaged in dangerous operations are required to be periodically examined by medical doctors
D. No woman worker shall be employed in any plantation between 7 pm and 7 am

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Correct Answer: 3. A and C only
Solution:Mines Act allows safety surveys, and Factories Act mandates medical exam for young persons in dangerous operations.

A. Chief Inspector may undertake safety and health survey: Under the Mines Act, 1952, the Chief Inspector is empowered to conduct safety and occupational health surveys to ensure compliance and detect hazards.

C. Young persons in dangerous operations require periodic medical examination: The Factories Act mandates that adolescents engaged in hazardous or dangerous operations must undergo periodic medical check-ups by certified medical practitioners to ensure fitness and safety.

(B) is incorrect because the Maternity Benefit Act grants additional leave for illness arising out of pregnancy, delivery or premature birth, in addition to maternity leave.

(D) is incorrect because plantation law generally restricts women's night work, but specific provisions allow relaxations under government approval; the absolute form given is not accurate.

74. Which of the following statements are true about labour law regulations in India?

A. India has established relatively comprehensive legal frameworks for the labour market
B. It extends to laws affecting labour migration, privatization and economic restructuring
C. The origin of these core laws in India may be traced back to strong American influence
D. Many workers fall outside its sphere of application

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Correct Answer: 4. A, B, D only
Solution:India has comprehensive labour laws, covers wider economic issues, and many fall outside coverage.

A. India has comprehensive labour market laws: India has a wide labour law framework including safety, wages, industrial relations, social security and welfare, making this true.

B. Extends to migration, privatization and economic restructuring: Labour regulations influence migrant labour, public-sector reforms, restructuring and privatization processes.

D. Many workers fall outside application: Due to thresholds (10 workers, 20 workers, etc.), self-employed, home-based and casual workers remain outside several laws.

(C) is incorrect because India's labour laws have origins in British colonial legislation and ILO conventions, not American influence.

75. Which of the following statements are true about the National Commissions on Labour in India?

A. The chairperson of the first National Commission on Labour (NCL) was Justice P.B. Gajendragadkar
B. Most of the recommendations of the first NCL were implemented by the Government of India
C. The Second National Commission on Labour was set up to recommend an umbrella law for the unorganized sector
D. The second NCL recommended definition for 'worker' in all groups of laws

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Correct Answer: 1. A and D only
Solution:The first NCL was chaired by Justice P.B. Gajendragadkar and the second NCL recommended a unified definition of 'worker'.

A. The chairperson of the first National Commission on Labour was Justice P.B. Gajendragadkar: The First NCL. constituted in 1966, was chaired by Justice P.B. Gajendragadkar, who had previously served as the Chief Justice of India. The Commission submitted its landmark report in 1969, examining industrial relations, labour welfare and social security systems of the period and suggesting reforms.

D. The second NCL recommended definition for 'worker' in all groups of laws: The Second NCL, established in 1999 and reporting in 2002, recommended the creation of a uniform and comprehensive definition of 'worker' to be applied consistently across all labour laws. It proposed rationalising categories of workmen, employees, and supervisory staff to remove inconsistencies and prepare the ground for consolidated labour codes.

(B) is incorrect because only a limited number of recommendations of the First NCL were implemented, while major structural reforms were not adopted.

(C) is incorrect because the Second NCL's mandate was the overall rationalisation of all labour laws, not specifically to draft an umbrella law for the unorganised sector.

76. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II.

List-I (HR Functions) List-II (Domain) 
(A) Hiring System(I) Streamline technology HR with task
(B) Training and Development(II) Use of Advance Data Mining.
(C) HR automation(III) Assessment of Competencies
(D) HR analytics(IV) Human Resource Planning
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
CodeABCD
1.IIIIIIIV
2.IIIIIIIV
3.IIIIVIII
4.IVIIIIII
Correct Answer: 4.
Solution:Hiring system with HR planning, training with competency assessment, HR automation with technology-task integration, and HR analytics with advanced data mining.

A-IV (Hiring System Human Resource Planning): Hiring begins with HR planning, because identifying vacancies, forecasting manpower needs and aligning staffing with organisational goals are primary planning activities that directly influence recruitment.

B-III (Training and Development → Assessment of Competencies): Training is linked with identifying and strengthening employee competencies. Competency assessment helps determine training needs and evaluate skill gaps.

C-I (HR Automation Streamline technology HR with task): HR automation integrates technology with HR tasks such as attendance, payroll, onboarding and workflow tracking, improving efficiency and accuracy.

D-II (HR Analytics Use of Advanced Data Mining): HR analytics relies on data mining techniques to discover workforce patterns, predict attrition, optimise staffing and support evidence-based HR decisions.

77. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II.

List-I (IHRM Framework) List-II (Orientation) 
A. EthnocentricI. World as single market
B. GeocentricII. Treaí region as distinct market
C. PolycentricIII. Tailor strategies to each host country
D. ReginocentricIV. Focus on home country
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Code:ABCD
1.IVIIIIII
2.IIIIIIIV
3.IIIIVIII
4.IVIIIIII
Correct Answer: 1.
Solution:Ethnocentric with home-country focus, geocentric with global orientation, polycentric with host-country focus, and reginocentric with regional approach.

A-IV (Ethnocentric Focus on home country): Key positions are filled by home-country nationals; strategy and control come from headquarters.

B-I (Geocentric World as single market): Talent is selected globally regardless of nationality; decisions focus on worldwide integration.

C-III (Polycentric → Tailor strategies to each host country): Subsidiaries are managed by local nationals and HR policies adapt to local cultures and laws.

D-II (Reginocentric→ Treat region as distinct market): Staffing and strategy are shaped at a regional level (e.g., Europe, ASEAN) rather than global or purely local.

78. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II.

List-I (Contributors) List-II (Trade Union Movements)
A. Karl MarxI. Trusteeship theory
B. Sydney and Beatrice WebbII. Communist Manifesto
C. M.K. GandhiIII. American Capitalist System
D. Robert HoxieIV. Socialist Pattern
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Code:ABCD
1.IIIVIIII
2.IIIIIIIV
3.IIIIVIII
4.IVIIIIII
Correct Answer: 1.
Solution:Marx with Communist Manifesto, Webbs with socialist pattern, Gandhi with trusteeship, and Hoxie with American capitalist system.

A-II (Karl Marx → Communist Manifesto): Marx's work laid the ideological foundation for class struggle, collectivism and anti-capitalist labour movements.

B-IV (Sydney & Beatrice Webb Socialist Pattern): The Webbs championed democratic socialism, cooperative movements and social welfare-oriented unionism.

C-I (M. K. Gandhi → Trusteeship Theory): Gandhi promoted peaceful labour relations and the idea that employers hold wealth in trust for the welfare of workers.

D-III (Robert Hoxie → American Capitalist System): Hoxie studied American trade unionism as a functional response to capitalism, highlighting job-control unionism.

79. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II.

List-I (Author) List-II (Approaches) 
(A) Robert Dubin(I) Multi Dimensional, interactive model of Industrial relations
(B) Robert Cox(II) Collective bargaining to full spectrum of present day Industrial relations
(C) Kenneth Walker(III) The Peasant-Lord System
(D) John T. Dunlop(IV) Harbinger of Systems approach
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Code:ABCD
1.IVIIIIII
2.IIIIIIIV
3.IIIIVIII
4.IVIIIIII
Correct Answer: 1.
Solution:Robert Dubin as the harbinger of the systems approach, Robert Cox with the Peasant-Lord model, Kenneth Walker with the multidimensional interactive model, and John T. Dunlop with the expansion from collective bargaining to full industrial relations.

A-IV (Robert Dubin → Harbinger of Systems Approach): Robert Dubin, through his early work in Industrial Sociology, laid the conceptual foundation for viewing industrial relations as a system of interactions, long before the formal systems model was articulated. He emphasised that workplace behaviour, organisational goals, and external influences must be understood as interconnected elements. This makes him a pioneering figure or "harbinger" of the systems viewpoint.

B-III (Robert Cox → The Peasant-Lord System): Robert Cox identified different historical stages of industrial relations in India. One key stage was the Peasant-Lord System, representing a highly unequal relationship where labour was weak and dependent, while management exercised dominance-much like the historical peasant-landlord hierarchy.

C-I (Kenneth Walker → Multi-Dimensional, Inter-Active Model of Industrial Relations): Walker highlighted that industrial relations is not merely about rules and dispute resolution; it is a multidimensional, interactive framework shaped by economic, technological, social and political forces. His approach underscored the dynamic interplay among these factors, giving rise to a multidimensional IR model.

D-II (John T. Dunlop → Collective Bargaining to Full Spectrum of Modern Industrial Relations): Dunlop's landmark work Industrial Relations Systems broadened the understanding of IR from traditional collective bargaining to an integrated system involving actors (employers, employees, government), contexts, and rule-making processes. His model demonstrated how IR encompasses the entire spectrum of interactions and regulatory mechanisms shaping the workplace.

80. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II.

List-I (Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946)List-II (Section) 
(A) Appeal(I) Section-13
(B) Register of Standing Order(II) Section-6
(C) Penalties and procedures(III) Section-9
(D) Posting of Standing orders(IV) Section-8
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Code:ABCD
1.IIIVIIII
2.IIIIIIIV
3.IIIIVIII
4.IVIIIIII
Correct Answer: 1.
Solution:Appeal under Section 6, register of standing orders under Section 8, penalties under Section 13, and posting under Section 9.

A-II (Appeal → Section 6): Section 6 provides the right of appeal against the order of the Certifying Officer regarding standing orders.

B-IV (Register of Standing Orders→ Section 8): Section 8 mandates maintaining a register of standing orders authenticated by appropriate authorities.

C-I (Penalties and Procedures → Section 13): Section 13 specifies penalties for noncompliance and procedural requirements relating to enforcement.

D-III (Posting of Standing Orders → Section 9): Section 9 requires prominently displaying certified standing orders at or near the entrance of the establishment for employees.