UGC-NET (NTA) Human Rights and Duties, June-2023

Total Questions: 100

41. No one shall be subjected without his free consent to medical or scientific experimentation. Which instrument(s) incorporate(s) this provision?

(a) UDHR
(b) ICESCR
(c) CRPD
(d) ICCPR
(e) CEDAW
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Correct Answer: B. (c) and (d) only
Solution:

(c) CRPD (Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities): The CRPD is an international human rights treaty that specifically focuses on the rights of persons with disabilities. Article 15 of the CRPD addresses the right to freedom from torture or cruel, inhuman, or degrading treatment or punishment.
This includes the prohibition of medical or scientific experimentation without free and informed consent. The CRPD recognizes the vulnerability of persons with disabilities and underscores the need to protect their rights and dignity in all aspects, including medical procedures and experimentation.
(d) ICCPR (International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights): The ICCPR is a key international human rights treaty that addresses civil and political rights. Article 7 of the ICCPR enshrines the principle of freedom from torture or cruel, inhuman, or degrading treatment or punishment.
This provision encompasses the prohibition of non-consensual medical or scientific experimentation.
The ICCPR, like other human rights instruments, emphasizes the protection of individuals' inherent dignity and rights, including the right to be free from harmful and unethical medical practices.
Both the CRPD and ICCPR incorporate the fundamental principle that individuals should not be subjected to medical or scientific experimentation without their free and informed consent, ensuring the protection of human rights and ethical standards in these contexts.

42. Which of the following 'status' is generally granted as a privilege by the U.N. to certain IGO's, INGO's and NGOs?

(a) Advisory status
(b) Consultative status
(c) Permanent Observer status
(d) Observer status
(e) Excellent status
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Correct Answer: B. (b), (c) and (d) only
Solution:

(B) Consultative status: This status, granted by the United Nations Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC), enables certain international non-governmental organizations (INGOs) and nongovernmental organizations (NGOs) to actively engage with the UN.
Organizations with consultative status can participate in various UN activities,including attending meetings, making oral interventions, and submitting written statements. They contribute valuable expertise and perspectives on issues within the purview of ECOSOC.
(c) Permanent Observer status: Entities that are not member states but wish to maintain a regular and established presence at the United Nations may be granted Permanent Observer status.
While they don't have voting rights. entities with this status can participate ir the work of the UN General Assembly. including attending sessions and engaging in relevant discussions.
This status is often granted to international organizations (IGOs) and other entities that have a significant interest in UN proceedings.
(d) Observer status: Observer status is a more general term that can apply to various entities, including intergovernmental organizations (IGOs), international non governmental organizations (INGOs).
and non-governmental organizations (NGOs). Entities with observer status are allowed to attend specific meetings or sessions of UN bodies, providing them with the opportunity to stay informed about relevant issues. However, they usually do not have the right to actively participate in discussions or have voting rights.
These statuses, namely Consultative status, Permanent Observer status, and Observer status, serve to facilitate the engagement of different entities with the United Nations, recognizing their contributions and interests in global affairs while outlining the extent of their participation and involvement in UN activities.

43. Which declaration stressed the need for the TRIPS Agreement to be part of the wider action to address public health problem affecting the developing and the least developed countries?

(a) Rio Declaration, 1992
(b) Declaration on Right to Development, 1986
(c) Stockholm Declaration, 1972
(d) Doha Declaration, 2001
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Correct Answer: C. (d) only
Solution:

The Doha Declaration, adopted at the WTO Ministerial Conference in Doha, Qatar, in 2001, highlighted the critical importance of public health concerns, particularly for developing and least developed countries, in the context of the Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) Agreement.
The declaration acknowledged the potential challenges posed by the TRIPS Agreement in restricting access to essential medicines, especially for countries facing public health crises such as HIV/ AIDS, malaria, and other epidemics.
Recognizing the need to strike a balance between protecting intellectual property rights and ensuring access to medicines, the Doha Declaration affirmed that the TRIPS Agreement should be interpreted and implemented in a manner supportive of public health objectives.
It emphasized the flexibility within the TRIPS framework to address public health concerns, allowing countries to take measures to protect public health and promote access to medicines for all.
The Doha Declaration represented a significant step in reconciling trade and public health interests, underscoring the importance of addressing health challenges in developing and least developed nations within the framework of international trade agreements.

44. Which of the following is/are not covered under the notion of TRIPS Flexibilities?

(a) Compulsory Licensing
(b) Bolar Excemption
(c) Parallel import
(d) Transition period allowed for developing and least developed countries (e) Pharmaceutical patent
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Correct Answer: B. (e) only
Solution:

"Pharmaceutical patent", which is a subject covered by the TRIPS (TradeRelated Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights) Agreement. In the context of TRIPS, pharmaceutical patents relate to the protection of intellectual property rights for inventions in the field of pharmaceuticals. The TRIPS Agreement sets out the minimum standards for the protection of patents, including those in the pharmaceutical sector, and establishes the conditions under which patents can be granted and enforced.
The agreement seeks to strike a balance between promoting innovation and ensuring access to essential medicines. While the protection of pharmaceutical patents is an integral part of the TRIPS framework, it is not classified as flexibility.
TRIPS flexibilities typically refer to measures that provide some leeway for member countries to navigate and address public health concerns, such as compulsory licensing or parallel imports, without violating the core principles of the agreement.

45. What is the correct order of enactment of following legislations?

(a) Terrorist and Disruptive Activities (Prevention) Act, (TADA)
(b) Prevention of Terrorism Act, (POTА)
(c) Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, (AFSPA)
(d) Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, (UAPA)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Correct Answer: C. (c), (d), (a) and (b) only
Solution:(c) The Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA) is a 1958 act of the Indian Parliament. It gives the Indian Armed Forces, state, and paramilitary forces special powers to maintain law and order in areas that are considered "disturbed".
The AFSPA is invoked in cases of militancy or insurgency where the territorial integrity of India is at risk. It provides security forces with legal immunity for their actions in these disturbed areas.
(d) The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) of 1967 is an Indian law that aims to prevent unlawful activities and associations in India. The law's primary objective is to provide the government with the power to deal with activities that threaten the integrity and sovereignty of India.
The UAPA allows the government to take action against individuals for acts that are "likely to threaten" or "likely to strike terror in people".
(a) The Terrorist and Disruptive Activities (Prevention) Act (TADA) was an anti-terrorism law in India that was in effect from 1985 to 1995. The law was modified in 1987 and applied to the entire country. TADA was the first antiterrorism law used by the government to oppose terrorist activities.
TADA defined a series of new, substantive terrorism-related offenses. The law stated that anyone who conspires or attempts to commit, or advocates, abets, advises, or incites a terrorist act, shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term of no less than five years.
(b) The Prevention of Terrorism Act (POTA) was passed by the Indian Parliament in 2002 to strengthen antiterrorism operations. The Act was enacted in response to several terrorist attacks in India, especially the attack on the Parliament.
POTA aims to address crimes like subversion, insurgency, and terrorism, which the existing criminal justice system is not equipped to handle. The Act defines terrorist acts and terrorists in Section 3, and gives special powers to investigating authorities.

46. Which of the following judgements deals with Police Reforms?

(a) Vishaka case
(b) DK Basu case
(c) Prakash Singh Case
(d) Maneka Gandhi Case
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Correct Answer: C. (c) only
Solution:

The Prakash Singh Case, a landmark judgment that specifically addresses police reforms in India. In the Prakash Singh Case, the Supreme Court issued directives aimed at restructuring and reforming the police force.
The key recommendations included the establishment of State Security Commissions to ensure that the police force functions without undue political interference, the creation of Police Complaints Authorities to address complaints against police misconduct, and other measures to enhanceaccountability, transparency, and efficiencywithin the police force. This judgment playeda pivotal role in advocating for systematicchanges in the police administration to betterserve the interests of justice and uphold the fundamental rights of citizens.

47. In 1957, the International Labour Organisation adopted_________on protection and integration of indigenous tribal populations:

(a) Convention No. 67 and Recommendation No. 50
(b) Convention No. 98 and Recommendation No. 110
(c) Convention No. 100 and Recommendation No. 101
(d) Convention No. 107 and Recommendation No. 104
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Correct Answer: D. (d) only
Solution:

In 1957, the International Labour Organization (ILO) took a significant step toward addressing the protection and integration of indigenous tribal populations by adopting Convention No. 107 and Recommendation No. 104. Convention No. 107, officially titled the"Convention concerning Indigenous and Tribal Populations", aimed to safeguardthe rights and well-being of indigenous andtribal communities.
It outlined principles related to their social, economic, and culturalrights, emphasizing the need for consultation and cooperation with these populationsto ensure their effective integration into the broader society. Recommendation No. 104 complemented the convention by providing additional guidelines and suggestions for implementing the provision soutlined in Convention No. 107.
Together,these instruments marked an important international commitment to recognizingand safeguarding the rights of indigenousand tribal populations, acknowledging the importance of their distinct cultures and the necessity for inclusive and collaborative approaches to their development and integration.

48. India has made reservation with regard to______of the Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women (CEDAW).

(a) Article 27
(b) Article 28
(c) Article 29
(d) Article 30
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Correct Answer: C. (c) only
Solution:

India's reservation to Article 25 of the Convention on the Eliminatior of All Forms of Discrimination agains Women (CEDAW) reflects a specific qualification in its acceptance of the treaty's provisions.
Article 29 of CEDAW addresses the settlement of disputes related to the interpretation or application of the Convention. By making a reservation to
this article, India is signaling that it may not fully accept the procedures outlined for resolving disputes as articulated in the Convention.
Reservations in international treaties serve as mechanisms for countries to express their consent to be bound by the overall treaty while stipulating exceptions or modifications to certain provisions.
In the case of CEDAW Article 29, India's reservation highlights a nuanced approach to the resolution of disputes, indicating a preference for alternative mechanisms or a desire to reconcile treaty obligations with its domestic legal framework.
Reservations allow states to participate in international agreements while safeguarding their autonomy in interpreting and implementing treaty provisions, recognizing potential conflicts with domestic laws or policies.

49. The National Commission for the Protection of Child Rights shall perform the following functions:

(a) Undertake and promote research in the field of child rights
(b) Inquire into complaints and take action in matters of financial irregularities in schools
(c) Spread child rights literacy
(d). Study decisions of Supreme Court
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Correct Answer: E *

50. Which of the following is correct about Juvenile Justice Board.

(a) There shall be one or more Boards in each district
(b) The Board shall consist of a Metropolitan Magistrate and two social workers
(c) The Board shall consist of a Metropolitan Magistrate and one social worker
(d) The Board shall consist of one woman, one social worker and a metropolitan magistrate
(e) The Board shall consist of a Metropolitan Magistrate or Judicial Magistrate and two social workers
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Correct Answer: B. (a) and (e) only
Solution:

(a) There shall be one or more Boards in each district: This statement underscores the decentralized nature of the Juvenile Justice System. To ensure accessibility and efficient handling of cases involving juveniles in conflict with the law, the law mandates the establishment of Juvenile Justice Boards in each district.
This provision facilitates local adjudication and decision-making, recognizing the importance of proximity to the community and the need for specialized attention to juvenile cases.
(e) The Board shall consist of a Metropolitan Magistrate or Judicial Magistrate and two social workers. This statement highlights the composition criteria for a Juvenile Justice Board. The inclusion of a Metropolitan Magistrate or Judicial Magistrate ensures that legal expertise is brought to the decisionmaking process.
The presence of two social workers is significant for a holistic understanding of the juvenile's situation, taking into account social aspects and the best interests of the child.
Social workers play a vital role in assessing the social background of the juvenile, facilitating rehabilitation plans, and contributing to decisions that prioritize the juvenile's well-being.