UGC NTA NET/JRF Exam, Environmental Sciences, June-2020

Total Questions: 100

51. What is the correct sequence in decreasing order of hardness among the following?

(a) Gypsum
(b) Fluorite
(c) Feldspar
(d) Topaz
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Correct Answer: C. (d) > (c) > (b) > (a)
Solution:

Hardness is a measure of the ability of a mineral to resist abrasion or scratching. A simple scale, based on empirical tests and known as Moh's scale of hardness, has been universally accepted. The 10 minerals selected to form the standard of comparison are listed below in order of increasing hardness:

MineralHardnessMaterial
Talc1
Gypsum2Finger Nail
Calcite3Copper Penny
Fluorite4
Apatite5Knife Blade
Feldspar6Glass
Quartz7Porcelain
Topaz or Beryl8
Corundum9
Diamond10

52. A random variable X follows Poisson distribu53. tion such that probabilties P(X = 1) = P(X = 2). Now consider the following statements:

(a) The mean of this Poisson distribution is 2.
(b) The variance of this Poisson distribution is 2.
(c) Probability P(X = 0) is equal to e⁻²
(d) Probability P(X = 0) = P(X = 1)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Correct Answer: A. (a), (b) and (c) only
Solution:

53. Identify the correct sequence of the following countries/group of countries credited with the highest to the lowest shares of cumulative CO₂ emissions to date.

(a) USA
(b) China
(c) EU
(d) India
(e) Japan
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Correct Answer: D. (a), (c), (b), (e), (d)
Solution:

Carbon dioxide emissions are the primary driver of global climate change. It's widely recognised that to avoid the worst impacts of climate change, the world needs to urgently reduce emissions.

The top 10 largest emitter countries account for 67.6% of the world total. Countries/group of countries credited with the highest to the lowest shares of cumulative CO₂ emissions: USA, EU, China, Japan, India.

54. Relative contribution (%) of the Green House Gases to global warming in decreasing order:

(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Methane
(c) CFC-12
(d) Nitrous oxide
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Correct Answer: B. (a) > (b) > (d) > (c)
Solution:

Greenhouse gases are those that absorb and emit infrared radiation in the wavelength range emitted by Earth. Carbon dioxide (0.04%), nitrous oxide, methane and ozone are trace gases that account for almost 0.1% of Earth's atmosphere and have an appreciable greenhouse effect.

In order, the most abundant greenhouse gases in Earth's atmosphere are:
• Water vapour (H₂O)
• Carbon dioxide (CO₂)
• Methane (CH₄)
• Nitrous oxide (N₂O)
• Ozone (O₃)
• Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
• Hydrofluorocarbons (includes HCFCs and HFCs).

55. Consider the following statements regarding reactions of pesticides in soils:

(a) They may vaporize into the atmosphere without any chemical change.
(b) They do not move downward through the soil in solution form.
(c) They are resistant to microbial decay.
(d) They may be absorbed by plants.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Correct Answer: A. (a) and (d) only
Solution:

Pesticides with high vapour pressures are easily lost to the atmosphere during application, and shortly thereafter they are lost from the soil through gaseous diffusion.

Some highly vola-tile pesticides, however, may also move down-ward into aquifers. Roots are the principal absorbing organs for soil-applied pesticides.

56. Consider the following regarding the incineration process of solid waste.

(a) It is an oxidation process.
(b) The two major combustible chemical elements are carbon and hydrogen. (c) Cellulose in the biowaste is transformed into organic acids.
(d) Excess source of air is not necessary.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Correct Answer: C. (a) and (b) only
Solution:

Incineration is a chemical reaction in which carbon, hydrogen and other elements in the waste mix with oxygen in the combustion zone and generates heat. The air requirements for combustion of solid wastes are considerable.

57. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): The risks from radioactive liquid wastes are caused under decontamination, solidification and disposal procedures.

Reason (R): The chemicals in radioactive liquid wastes are hazardous in nature.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Correct Answer: A. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Solution:

Liquid RAW can be divided into process drains, floor drains and laundry drains based on the sources of waste generation.

It is mainly generated from the clean-up and maintenance processes of reactor coolant and related systems containing radioactivity.

The main sources of primary liquid radioactive waste (LRAW) from NPPs are pipelines leakages. water from spent nuclear fuel storage pools.

Solutions remaining after sorbent regeneration and spent decontamination solutions.

The risks from radioactive liquid wastes are caused under decontamination, solidification and disposal procedures.

58. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Hazardous materials such as lead, mercury, and hexavalent chromium in one form or other are present in electronic wastes.

Statement II: Landfilling of electronic waste is the best operation from the environmental viewpoint.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Correct Answer: C. Statement I is correct, but Statement II is false
Solution:

E-waste is a popular, informal name for electronic products nearing the end of their "useful life." Computers, televisions, VCRs, stereos, copiers, and fax machines are common electronic products. Many of these products can be reused, refurbished, or recycled.

There are hazardous materials, such as lead, mercury, and hexavalent chromium, in circuit boards, batteries, and colour cathode ray tubes (CRTs) are present in electronic waste. Land filling of electronic waste is not the best operation for the environmental viewpoint.

59. Provision of Extended Producer's Responsibility (EPR) of producer, importer and brand owner for collecting back the waste generated by their product has been in the:

(a) Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016
(b) Construction & Demolition Waste Management Rules, 2016
(c) Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016
(d) E-waste (Management) Rules, 2016
(e) Biomedical Waste Management Rules, 2016
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Correct Answer: D. (a), (b), (c), (d) only
Solution:

In the field of waste management, extended producer responsibility (EPR) is a strategy to add all of the environmental costs associated with a product throughout the product life cycle to the market price of that product.

Extended producer responsibility legislation is a driving force behind the adoption of remanufacturing initiatives because it "focuses on the end-of-use treatment of consumer products and has the primary aim to increase the amount and degree of product recovery and to minimize the environmental impact of waste materials"

Provision of Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) of producer, importer and brand owner for collecting back the waste generated by their product has been in the:

(a) Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016
(b) Construction & Demolition Waste Management Rules, 2016
(c) Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016
(d) E-waste (Management) Rules, 2016
(e) Biomedical Waste Management Rules, 2016.

60. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Increasing the productivity of forests to meet essential needs is one of the major objectives of the National Forest Policy, 1988.

Statement II: According to the National Forest Policy,1988, no forestbased enterprise should provide employment to local people on a priority basis.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Correct Answer: C. Statement I is correct, but Statement II is false
Solution:

The basic objectives of the National Forest Policy, 1988 are:

• Maintenance of environmental stability through preservation and, where necessary, restoration of the ecological balance that has been adversely disturbed by serious depletion of forests.

• Conservation of the natural heritage by preserving the remaining natural forests with the vast variety of flora and fauna, which represents remarkable biological diversity and genetic resources.

• Substantial increase of forcst/tree cover through massive afforestation and social forestry programmes, especially on denuded, degraded and unproductive lands

• Meeting of the requirements of fuelwood, fodder, minor forest produce and small timber of the rural and tribal population

• Increasing the productivity of forests to meet essential national needs.
• Encouragement of efficient utilization of forest produce and maximization of wood substitution.

• Recognition of the rights of forest dependent communities.