UGC NTA NET/JRF Exam, Social Medicine & Community Health, February-2023

Total Questions: 100

41. 'Ready for RED' is:

(a) e-learning platform for awareness about HIV/AIDS
(b) meant for 10-19 years old individuals
(c) meant for 11-16 years old individuals
(d) e-learning platform for menstruation and menstrual hygiene products.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Correct Answer: C. (c) and (d) only
Solution:

'Ready for RED' is primarily an e-learning platform designed for menstruation and menstrual hygiene product awareness. The acronym 'RED' refers to the colour commonly associated with menstruation.

Such platforms play a crucial role in dispelling myths, addressing concerns, and promoting safe and hygienic menstrual practices. Particularly, it targets those aged 11-16 years, a group that is in the transition phase from childhood to adolescence and is likely encountering or about to encounter menstruation for the first time.

42. The 'Central Pollution Control Board' has taken the following measures to control air pollution.

(a) Setting up of ambient air quality standard for short term and annual periods.
(b) Monitoring of air quality with regard to CO₂, NO and Lead.
(c) Submission of environment statement by polluting units made tandatory since 2014
(d) Emission standards for petrol and diesel driven vehicles were first introduced in 1990.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Correct Answer: A. (a) and (d) only
Solution:

The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is an apex body in India that plays a significant role in regulating and controlling pollution. One of its key responsibilities is the establishment of ambient air quality standards for both short-term and annual durations.

These standards are critical benchmarks that guide policymakers, industries, and local bodies in understanding and tackling pollution.

Additionally, CPCB introduced emission standards for petrol and diesel-driven vehicles in 1990, a pioneering move to combat vehicular emissions, which are significant contributors to air pollution in many urban areas.

43. Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushidhi Pariyojna:

(a) Administered by Bureau of Pharma PSUs of India
(b) Includes list of more than 1000 generic medicines
(c) Operating through more than 1 lac stores.
(d) Launched in 2020 by department of pharmaceuticals.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Correct Answer: A. (a), (b) only
Solution:

The Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushidhi Pariyojna (PMBJP) is a campaign under the Department of Pharmaceuticals, Government of India, to provide quality medicines at affordable prices to the masses.

The Bureau of Pharma PSUs of India (BPPI) administers this initiative. It aims to bring down the healthcare budget of every citizen of India by providing generic drugs, which are much cheaper but are equivalent in quality as expensive branded drugs. While the initiative boasts a broad list of generic medicines, its launch was not in 2020.

44. Correct statements about sequential (or two stage or series) screening:

(a) Loss in Net sensitivity
(b) Gain in Net sensitivity
(c) Loss in Net specificity
(d) Gain in Net Specificity
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

Correct Answer: C. (a) and (d) only
Solution:

Sequential screening involves the use of two or more tests in sequence. Only those who test positive (or sometimes negative, depending on the test purpose) on the first test proceed to the second test.

This method is employed to enhance the overall accuracy of the testing process. With sequential screening, there's a loss in net sensitivity because not everyone proceeds to the second test, but there's a gain in net specificity.

This is because the second test tends to filter out false positives, increasing the overall specificity.

45. A disease is suitable for screening if it fulfils the following criteria:

(a) Prevalence of disease should be low
(b) There is no effective treatment
(c) Natural history of disease should be adequately understood
(d) There is a test that can detect the disease prior to the onset of signs and symptoms.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

Correct Answer: D. (c) and (d) only
Solution:

Screening for diseases is an essential aspect of preventive medicine. The main idea is early detection, even before symptoms manifest, so interventions can start early and prevent severe disease or complications.

For a disease to be suitable for screening, its natural history should be adequately understood. This understanding ensures that the intervention can make a significant difference. Additionally, there must be a test available that can detect the disease before symptoms appear.

Early detection is the primary purpose of screening, and without a reliable test, this can't be accomplished. Thus, understanding the disease's natural history and having a suitable pre-symptomatic test are paramount.

46. Incubation period is a period between

(a) Entry of pathogen in human body to appearance of first clinical sign/symptom.
(b) Entry of pathogen in arthropod till it becomes infective.
(c) Entry of pathogen in host to maximal infectivity
(d) Entry of pathogen to development of 50% of cases.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Correct Answer: A. (a), (b) only
Solution:

Incubation period refers to the time interval between the entry of a pathogen into the human body and the appearance of the first clinical signs and symptoms.

This is a critical period as the individual might not know they are infected but could be infectious and spread the disease to others. It's essential in epidemiology because it helps in contact tracing and understanding disease dynamics.

Another context for an incubation period is in arthropods like mosquitoes, where it refers to the time taken for a pathogen to mature inside them until they become infective.

47. Drug Controller General of India:

(a) Supervises Central Drug Standard Control Organization
(b) Licensing authority for drugs, blood and its products, vaccines etc.
(c) Head office in Bangalore with zonal office in Delhi.
(d) Quality monitoring of its laboratories done by quality council of India. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Correct Answer: A. (a) and (b) only
Solution:

The Drug Controller General of India (DCGI) is the primary regulatory body for pharmaceuticals and medical devices in India.

The DCGI oversees the Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) and is responsible for the approval of licenses for specific categories of drugs, including blood and its products, and vaccines.

The objective is to ensure that drugs and medical devices in India meet required safety, efficacy, and quality standards.

The position of DCGI is essential for public health, as the decisions made by the DCGI impact the availability, safety, and efficacy of medicines available in India.

48. Integrated Vector Management:

(a) Integration done for identical vector control methods for synergy
(b) Includes monthly indoor residual spray
(c) Long lasting insecticide treated bed nets replaced by indoor residual spray. (d) Chemical used in indoor residual spray are pyrethrum and malathion.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Correct Answer: D. (a) and (d) only
Solution:

Integrated Vector Management (IVM) is a comprehensive strategy to manage vector populations in a way that reduces or interrupts disease transmission.

It involves integrating various vector control methods to maximize their efficacy while being costeffective.

The methods used should be synergistic, ensuring their combined effect is more substantial than the sum of their individual impacts.

Chemicals like pyrethrum and malathion are among those used for indoor residual spraying, a method wherein the interiors of homes are sprayed with insecticides to kill mosquitoes that come in contact with treated surfaces.

49. Services provided at Nutrition Rehabilitation Center (NRC):

(a) Caters to children upto 14 years
(b) Sensory stimulation of emotional care
(c) Social assessment of family
(d) Severely Malnourished child referred to hospitals.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Correct Answer: B. (b) and (c) only
Solution:

Nutrition Rehabilitation Centers (NRCS) are specialized centers for addressing the severe acute malnutrition in children.

At NRCs, children receive comprehensive care, which not only focuses on their nutritional needs but also their overall development.

Sensory stimulation and emotional care are vital components of this, ensuring the child's psychological well-being and aiding in cognitive development. Additionally, social assessment of the family is crucial.

It helps to understand the socio-economic factors that might be contributing to the child's nutritional status, allowing for more targeted interventions and support for the family.

50. Rabies vaccination:

(a) Part of Universal Immunization program.
(b) Should be given to all high risk persons like animal handlers, wild life officers as pre exposure prophylaxis
(c) Should be given to all eligible dog bite cases as post exposure prophylaxis. (d) Rabies immunoglobulin is given in category II animal bite.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Correct Answer: B. (b) and (c) only
Solution:

Rabies is a fatal viral disease, primarily transmitted to humans through bites, scratches, or licks on broken skin from infected animals.

Rabies vaccination is vital for those at high risk of exposure, such as animal handlers and wildlife officers.

They should receive the vaccine as a pre-exposure prophylaxis, which means they get vaccinated before any potential exposure to the virus.

In the event of an animal bite, it is crucial to administer post-exposure prophylaxis to all eligible individuals. This consists of a series of rabies vaccinations to prevent the onset of symptoms and progression of the disease.